4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology questions
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4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology questions
4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology discussion I all competitive exams
Science questions
Video Hindi medium: 4000 questions science series I biology
Q1.Vaccines are
(a) Treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins
(b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins
(c) Curative medicines
(d) Monoclonal antibodies
Q2. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro-organism a in human body?
(a) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(b) Tears
(c) Monocytes
(d) Skin
Q3. Malaria’s parasite completes its life-cycle in
(a) one host
(b) two host
(c) three host
(d) reservoir host
Q4. Broad spectrum antibiotics are one which attack
(a) pathogens as well as host
(b) a wide range of pathogens
(c) only pathogens
(d) only host
Q5. Antibodies in our body are complex
(a) steroids
(b) prostaglandins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) lipoproteins
Q6.Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in...
(a) Liver of man
(b) Stomach wall of mosquito
(c) RBCs of man
(d) Salivary gland of mosquito
Q7. Salmonella is related with...
(a) Typhoid
(b) Polio
(c) TB
(d) Tetanus
Q8. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?
(a) Goitre
(b) Skin cancer
(c) Hay fever
(d) Enteric fever
Q9. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to
(a) rapid cell divisions
(b) lack of nutrition
(c) fast mutation
(d) lack of oxygen
Q10. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(d) innate non-specific immunity
Q11. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is
(a) antigen
(b) antibody
(c) interferon
(d) histone
Q12. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
(a) insufficiency of organ donors
(b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(c) religious or ethnic considerations
(d) lack of effective surgical techniques
Q13. Carcinoma refers to
(a) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(c) malignant tumours of the colon
(d) benign tumours of the connective tissue
Q14. Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are Known as
(a) Hybridomas
(b) Myelomas
(c) lymphocytes
(d) monoclonal cells
Q15. Which cancer affects lymph gland and spleen ?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Surcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Q16. T – cells are lymphocytes which produce the cellular immunity. These are developed from
(a) thymus
(b) liver
(c) spleen
(d) endothelium of blood vessels
Q17. The immunity obtained after the body has recovered from a disease is
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) both
(d) none of these
Q18. AIDS virus has
(a) single stranded RNA
(b) double stranded RNA
(c) Single stranded DNA
(d) Double stranded DNA
Q19. ‘ELISA’ test is done for the diagnosis of
(a) anthrax
(b) HIV
(c) hepatitis
(d) malaria
Q20. The factor responsible for cirrhosis of liver is
(a) sugar
(b) vitamins
(c) fats and oils
(d) alcoholism
Q21. During blood typing agglutination indicates that the
(a) RBC carry certain antigens
(b) plasma contains certain antigens
(c) RBC carry certain antibodies
(d) plasma contains certain antibodies
Q22. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation
(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen
(b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens cause passive immunity
(c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
(d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation
Q23. Benign tumour is the one which
(a) shows metastasis
(b) differentiated and capsulated
(c) undifferentiated and non capsulated
(d) differentiated and non capsulated
Q24. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering
(a) preformed antibodies
(b) wide spectrum antibiotics
(c) weakened germs
(d) dead germs
Q25. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Cholera – Vibrio cholerae
(b) German measles – Rubella virus
(c) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis
(d) Tetanus – Pasteurella pestis
Q26.Cancer is related to
(a) uncontrolled growth of tissues
(b) non-malignant tumour
(c) controlled division of tissue
(d) none of these
Q27. Which of the following is a pair of viral disease?
(a) Common cold, AIDS
(b) Dysentery, common cold
(c) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(d) Ringworm, AIDS
Q28.Confirmatory test for AIDS is
(a) Western blot
(b) ESR
(c) ELISA
(d) PCR
Q29. Vaccines are prepared from immune
(a) vitamins
(b) blood
(c) serum
(d) plasma
Q30. Malaria is spread by
(a) Male Culex
(b) Female Culex
(c) Male Anopheles
(d) Female Anopheles
Q31. Expand ELISA
(a) Enzyme linked immuno – sorbent assay
(b) Enzyme linked ion sorbent assay
(c) Enzyme linked inductive assay
(d) None of the above
Q32.Characters of acquired immunity are
(a) Specificity of antigen
(b) Di?erence between self & non-self.
(c) Retains memory
(d) all of these
Q33.Humoral immunity is due to
(a). B-lymphocytes
(b). T-lymphocytes
(c). L-Lymphocytes
(d). P- Lymphocytes
Q34. ELISA' test is done for the diagnosis of
(a). Anthrax
(b). HIV
(c). Hepatitis
(d). Malaria
Q35.Sensitivity to any allergen is related to
(a). Deviation from the process of immunity
(b). Age of the person
(c). Eating habit
(d). Rise in environmental temperature
Q36.A molecule that elicits an immune response is called:
(a) antibody
(b) Antigen
(c) Mutagen
(d) Carcinogen
Q36.Full form of AIDS is
(a) Autoimmune deficiency syndrome
(b) Auto immune deficiency syndrome.
(c) Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome
(d Acquired immune disease symptom
Q37.Which one of the following is an Indian medicinal plant?
(a) Saccharum officinarum
(b )Rauwolfia serpentina
(c) Oryza sativa
(d) Solanum melongena
Q38.The immune system which works against self is
(a) Self-immune system
(b) Autoimmunity
(c) Specific immunity
(d) None of above
Q39.Which is blood cancer ?
(a) Chloremia
(b) Leukemia
(c) Uremia
(d) Protemia
Q40.The use of cannabis product (bhang , ganja; charas, marijuana or hashish) causes
(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increase alertness and activity.
Q41.Typhoid fever is caused by
(a) Salmonella
(b) Shigella
(c) Escherichia
(d) Giardia
Q42. At which stage of which stage does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these cells/
(d) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
Q43.Mark the correct statement in the following.
(a) Injecting microbes during immunization induces passive immunity.
(b) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
(c) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides active immunity to infant
(d) None of these
Q44. Which one of the following is useful in identifying the different strains of a causal microbe of an infectious disease?
(a)Complementary DNA
(b)Agrobacterium
(c)Colchicine
(d) Crystal violet
Q45. An ovoviviparous parasite is....
(a) Ascaris
(b) Taenia
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Plasmodium
Q46.Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to
(a) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(b) Hot and humid environment
(c) Low temperature
(d) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Q47.Where memory cells are formed ?
(a) Monocytes
(b)Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d)Lymphocytes
Q48.By what we get passive immunity ?
(a) Antibody
(b) Antigen
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Vaccination
Q49.Swine Flu is caused by
(a) HIV
(b) HINI
(c) Herpes zostr
(d) Mumps virus
Q50.An autoimmune disease is…
(a) Cancer
(b) Erythroblastosis fetalis
(c) Asthma
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis