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4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology questions

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4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology questions

4000 MCQs science Video + PDF series I Biology discussion I all competitive exams

Science questions

Video Hindi medium: 4000 questions science series I biology

Q1.Vaccines are

(a) Treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins

(b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins

(c) Curative medicines

(d) Monoclonal antibodies

Q2. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro-organism a in human body?

(a) Epithelium of urogenital tract

(b) Tears

(c) Monocytes

(d) Skin

Q3. Malaria’s parasite completes its life-cycle in

(a) one host

(b) two host

(c) three host 

(d) reservoir host 

Q4. Broad spectrum antibiotics are one which attack

(a) pathogens as well as host

(b) a wide range of pathogens

(c) only pathogens

(d) only host

Q5. Antibodies in our body are complex

(a) steroids

(b) prostaglandins

(c) glycoproteins

(d) lipoproteins

Q6.Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in...

(a) Liver of man

(b) Stomach wall of mosquito

(c) RBCs of man 

(d) Salivary gland of mosquito

Q7. Salmonella is related with...

(a) Typhoid 

(b) Polio 

(c) TB 

(d) Tetanus

Q8. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?

(a) Goitre

(b) Skin cancer

(c) Hay fever

(d) Enteric fever

Q9. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

(a) rapid cell divisions

(b) lack of nutrition

(c) fast mutation

(d) lack of oxygen

Q10. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as

(a) active immunity

(b) passive immunity

(c) cellular immunity

(d) innate non-specific immunity

Q11. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is

(a) antigen

(b) antibody

(c) interferon

(d) histone

Q12. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is

(a) insufficiency of organ donors

(b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies

(c) religious or ethnic considerations

(d) lack of effective surgical techniques

science

Q13. Carcinoma refers to

(a) malignant tumours of the connective tissue

(b) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane

(c) malignant tumours of the colon

(d) benign tumours of the connective tissue

Q14. Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are Known as

(a) Hybridomas

(b) Myelomas

(c) lymphocytes

(d) monoclonal cells

Q15. Which cancer affects lymph gland and spleen ?

(a) Carcinoma

(b) Surcoma

(c) Leukemia 

(d) Lymphoma

Q16. T – cells are lymphocytes which produce the cellular immunity. These are developed from

(a) thymus

(b) liver

(c) spleen

(d) endothelium of blood vessels

Q17. The immunity obtained after the body has recovered from a disease is

(a) active immunity

(b) passive immunity

(c) both

(d) none of these

Q18. AIDS virus has

(a) single stranded RNA

(b) double stranded RNA

(c) Single stranded DNA

(d) Double stranded DNA

Q19. ‘ELISA’ test is done for the diagnosis of

(a) anthrax

(b) HIV

(c) hepatitis

(d) malaria

Q20. The factor responsible for cirrhosis of liver is

(a) sugar

(b) vitamins

(c) fats and oils

(d) alcoholism

Q21. During blood typing agglutination indicates that the

(a) RBC carry certain antigens

(b) plasma contains certain antigens

(c) RBC carry certain antibodies

(d) plasma contains certain antibodies

Q22. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation 

(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen

(b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens cause passive immunity

(c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine

(d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

Q23. Benign tumour is the one which

(a) shows metastasis

(b) differentiated and capsulated

(c) undifferentiated and non capsulated

(d) differentiated and non capsulated

Q24. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering

(a) preformed antibodies

(b) wide spectrum antibiotics

(c) weakened germs

(d) dead germs

Q25. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Cholera – Vibrio cholerae

(b) German measles – Rubella virus

(c) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis

(d) Tetanus – Pasteurella pestis

Q26.Cancer is related to

(a) uncontrolled growth of tissues

(b) non-malignant tumour

(c) controlled division of tissue

(d) none of these

Q27. Which of the following is  a pair of viral disease?

(a) Common cold, AIDS

(b) Dysentery, common cold

(c) Typhoid, tuberculosis

(d) Ringworm, AIDS

Q28.Confirmatory test for AIDS is

(a) Western blot

(b) ESR
(c) ELISA

(d) PCR

Q29. Vaccines are prepared from immune

(a) vitamins

(b) blood

(c) serum

(d) plasma

Q30. Malaria is spread by

(a) Male Culex

(b) Female Culex

(c) Male Anopheles

(d) Female Anopheles

Q31. Expand ELISA

(a) Enzyme linked immuno – sorbent assay

(b) Enzyme linked ion sorbent assay

(c) Enzyme linked inductive assay

(d) None of the above

Q32.Characters of acquired immunity are

(a) Specificity of antigen

(b) Di?erence between self & non-self.

(c) Retains memory

(d) all of these

Q33.Humoral immunity is due to

(a). B-lymphocytes

(b). T-lymphocytes

(c). L-Lymphocytes

(d). P- Lymphocytes

Q34. ELISA' test is done for the diagnosis of

(a). Anthrax

(b). HIV

(c). Hepatitis

(d). Malaria

Q35.Sensitivity to any allergen is related to

(a). Deviation from the process of immunity

(b). Age of the person

(c). Eating habit

(d). Rise in environmental temperature

Q36.A molecule that elicits an immune response is called:

(a) antibody

(b) Antigen

(c) Mutagen

(d) Carcinogen

Q36.Full form of AIDS is

(a) Autoimmune deficiency syndrome

(b) Auto immune deficiency syndrome.

(c) Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome

(d Acquired immune disease symptom

Q37.Which one of the following is an Indian medicinal plant?

(a) Saccharum officinarum

(b )Rauwolfia serpentina

(c) Oryza sativa

(d) Solanum melongena

Q38.The immune system which works against self is

(a) Self-immune system

(b) Autoimmunity

(c) Specific immunity

(d) None of above

Q39.Which is blood cancer ?

(a) Chloremia

(b) Leukemia
(c) Uremia

(d) Protemia

Q40.The use of cannabis product (bhang , ganja; charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness

(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings

(c) suppresses  brain function and relieves pain

(d) stimulates the nervous system and increase alertness and activity.

Q41.Typhoid fever is caused by

(a) Salmonella

(b) Shigella

(c) Escherichia

(d) Giardia

Q42. At which stage of which stage does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells

(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these cells/

(d) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

Q43.Mark the correct statement in the following.

(a) Injecting microbes during immunization induces passive immunity.

(b) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.

(c) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides active immunity to infant

(d) None of these

Q44. Which one of the following is useful in identifying the different strains of a causal microbe of an infectious disease?

(a)Complementary DNA

(b)Agrobacterium
(c)Colchicine
(d) Crystal violet

Q45. An ovoviviparous parasite is....

(a) Ascaris

(b) Taenia

(c) Wuchereria 

(d) Plasmodium

Q46.Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to

(a) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(b) Hot and humid environment
(c) Low temperature

(d) Inhalation of seasonal pollen

Q47.Where memory cells are formed ?

(a) Monocytes 

(b)Eosinophils

(c) Neutrophils

(d)Lymphocytes

Q48.By what we get passive immunity ?

(a) Antibody 

(b) Antigen 

(c) Antibiotic

(d) Vaccination

Q49.Swine Flu is caused by

(a) HIV

(b) HINI

(c) Herpes zostr

(d) Mumps virus

Q50.An autoimmune disease is…

(a) Cancer

(b) Erythroblastosis fetalis

(c) Asthma

(d) Rheumatoid arthritis